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Sergeant Exam Questions & Answers

12 free sample questions, fully explained, at the same supervisory standard as the real NPPF step two legal exam: cut score 55%, most recent published pass rate 58.5%.

Crime Question 1

For an assault to amount to actual bodily harm (ABH) rather than common assault, what must the prosecution additionally prove?

That the defendant intended to cause serious harm, or was reckless as to whether serious harm resulted
✓ That the victim suffered an injury that interferes with health or comfort, even if not permanent
That a weapon or other dangerous article was used to inflict the injury on the victim
That the victim needed treatment at hospital or from a doctor for the injury caused

ABH under s.47 Offences Against the Person Act 1861 requires an injury that interferes with health or comfort — bruising, minor cuts, or even a recognised psychiatric injury can qualify. It does not require intent to cause serious harm (that's closer to the threshold for GBH with intent), a weapon, or hospital treatment.

Crime Question 2

A defendant claims they used force in self-defence. What is the correct two-stage test the court applies?

✓ Whether the defendant honestly believed force was needed, and whether the force was reasonable in the circumstances as they believed them to be
Whether the force was proportionate to the threat that actually existed, judged objectively with hindsight once all the facts are known to the court
Whether the defendant first took every reasonable opportunity to retreat, and only then used no more force than necessary
Whether the other party struck the first blow, and whether the defendant's response was in proportion to that blow

Self-defence is judged on the defendant's honestly held belief in the need for force (even if that belief was mistaken), then whether the degree of force was reasonable given the circumstances as they believed them to be — not with the benefit of hindsight. There is no strict duty to retreat, and who struck first isn't determinative on its own.

Crime Question 3

Under the Theft Act 1968, which of these is NOT one of the five elements the prosecution must prove for theft?

Appropriation, meaning any assumption of the rights of an owner
Property belonging to another, including anyone in possession or control
Dishonesty, judged by the Ivey v Genting test (R v Barton and Booth)
✓ That the property taken was of significant financial value to its owner

Theft requires: appropriation, of property, belonging to another, dishonestly, with intention to permanently deprive. There is no minimum value threshold — theft of a low-value item is still theft in law, even where it affects charging decisions in practice.

Crime Question 4

What distinguishes criminal damage from aggravated criminal damage under the Criminal Damage Act 1971?

The value of the property damaged, with aggravation applying above £5,000
Whether the property belonged to a public body or was used for a public service
✓ Whether the defendant intended or was reckless as to endangering another's life
Whether fire was used, since any damage by fire is automatically aggravated

Aggravated criminal damage (s.1(2)) requires the additional element that the defendant intended, or was reckless as to, the damage endangering the life of another — it carries a maximum of life imprisonment. Arson (damage by fire, s.1(3)) is a separate way of charging the offence based on the method used, not the same distinction.

Evidence and procedure Question 5

Under the Police and Criminal Evidence Act 1984, what is the standard maximum period a suspect can be detained before charge without authorisation from a superintendent or above?

12 hours
✓ 24 hours
36 hours
48 hours

Section 41 PACE limits detention without charge to 24 hours from the 'relevant time'. For an indictable offence only, a superintendent or above may authorise detention up to 36 hours from the relevant time (s.42), and magistrates may issue warrants of further detention up to an absolute maximum of 96 hours (ss.43-44). For a summary-only offence the 24-hour limit cannot be extended. Arrests under s.41 Terrorism Act 2000 follow a separate regime. Code C (section 15) governs the reviews and records that accompany these limits.

Evidence and procedure Question 6

A suspect is interviewed under caution but not told a solicitor is available before questioning begins. What is the most likely consequence for any admission made?

✓ The interview may be excluded under s.78 PACE, as admitting it could adversely affect the fairness of proceedings
None, because the s.58 PACE right to a solicitor only applies after charge, not during an interview under caution
The admission is automatically excluded under s.76 PACE as oppression, with no judicial discretion
Nothing at trial; the breach only becomes relevant on appeal, after the suspect has been convicted

The right to legal advice under s.58 PACE and Code C is a significant and substantial safeguard. Breaching it doesn't make evidence automatically inadmissible, but gives the court a clear basis to exclude it under s.78 PACE where admitting it would adversely affect the fairness of the proceedings.

Evidence and procedure Question 7

What is the correct current caution to be given to a suspect before or during an interview under caution?

You have the right to remain silent. Anything you say can and will be used against you in a court of law, and you have the right to have a solicitor present during questioning
You must answer all questions truthfully; if you refuse or give a false account you may face further charges, and the court may treat your refusal as evidence of guilt
You do not have to say anything unless you wish to do so, but what you say may be put into writing and given in evidence
✓ You do not have to say anything, but it may harm your defence if you do not mention when questioned something which you later rely on in court; anything you do say may be given in evidence

The current England and Wales caution reflects that an inference can be drawn under the Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 from a failure to mention something later relied on in court — this is different from the simple 'right to silence' phrasing sometimes assumed from US media, and from the older 'unless you wish to do so … put into writing' caution used before s.34 came into force in 1995.

Evidence and procedure Question 8

Under PACE Code D, what is the primary purpose of holding a formal identification procedure (e.g. VIPER) rather than simply asking a witness to point out a suspect informally?

It is quicker and cheaper than street identification, because video images can be compiled without the witness attending
It is a step required only for indictable offences, so that identification evidence can go before a Crown Court jury
✓ It reduces the risk of a suggestive or unreliable identification, protecting both the witness's evidence and the suspect
It means the witness's identification is admitted as hearsay, so the witness need not attend court to give evidence

Formal identification procedures under Code D exist to protect the reliability and fairness of eyewitness identification for everyone involved — badly conducted or suggestive identification is one of the most common causes of wrongful conviction, which is why the Code sets out strict, structured procedures.

General police duties Question 9

Under s.1 PACE, what must an officer have before conducting a stop and search for stolen or prohibited articles?

A supervisor's verbal authorisation, given by an officer of at least inspector rank before the search
✓ Reasonable grounds to suspect the person is in possession of a stolen or prohibited article
A written warrant from a magistrate, unless the search takes place in a public place at night
The consent of the person, which must be recorded in writing on the search record before searching

Section 1 PACE searches require reasonable grounds to suspect the specific individual is carrying stolen or prohibited items — a genuinely held suspicion isn't enough on its own; it must be objectively reasonable and cannot be based on personal factors like appearance alone.

General police duties Question 10

How does a search authorised under s.60 Criminal Justice and Public Order Act 1994 differ from a standard s.1 PACE search?

✓ Once properly authorised, it allows searches within a set area and time without reasonable suspicion about the particular person
It requires a higher standard than s.1: reasonable belief, rather than suspicion, that the specific person carries a weapon
It permits searches of vehicles only, never of people, and only on the public roads specified in the authorisation
It has no time limit once authorised, and stays in force until the authorising officer or a superintendent cancels it

Section 60 is a suspicion-independent power — once a senior officer has authorised it for a specific locality and time period (typically because of anticipated serious violence), officers can search individuals within that area without needing reasonable suspicion about that particular person, unlike s.1 PACE.

General police duties Question 11

What legal test governs whether an officer's use of force was lawful?

Whether the force used was the minimum theoretically possible, assessed with the benefit of hindsight after a full post-incident review
Whether the subject was later convicted of an offence arising from the incident in which force was used
Whether a senior officer approved the tactic afterwards and it was recorded on a use of force form
✓ Whether the force was reasonable in the circumstances the officer honestly believed existed, and not disproportionate in those circumstances

The test (s.3(1) Criminal Law Act 1967 and s.76 Criminal Justice and Immigration Act 2008, which reflects common law self-defence) is whether the force was reasonable in the circumstances as the officer honestly believed them to be (s.76(3) and (4)), and force that was disproportionate in those circumstances is not reasonable (s.76(6)). It is judged on the belief held at the time, not with hindsight, and it is not a requirement for the absolute minimum force theoretically available.

General police duties Question 12

Which of these is a 'protected characteristic' under the Equality Act 2010 that a supervisor must have particular regard to when managing a team?

Political party membership
Trade union membership
✓ Religion or belief
Length of service

The nine protected characteristics under the Equality Act 2010 are age, disability, gender reassignment, marriage/civil partnership, pregnancy/maternity, race, religion or belief, sex, and sexual orientation. Political party membership, trade union membership and length of service are not protected characteristics under this Act.

335 More Questions, Plus Full Timed Papers

These 12 are a free sample. The paid toolkit has 347 checked questions for the sergeant paper, a full 150-question timed sitting scored against the real 55% cut score, CVF promotion board practice and, on the AI Pro tier, an AI tutor and board assessor.

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Frequently Asked Questions

Are these real NPPF Sergeant exam questions?

No. The College of Policing has never published its real question bank or answer key, so no site can honestly offer the actual questions in advance. These are original PolicePay questions written to the same supervisory standard and covering the same three named subject areas (Crime, Evidence and procedure, General police duties), so you can practise the underlying legal reasoning rather than memorise leaked material that doesn't exist.

What subject areas does the Sergeant exam actually cover?

Crime, Evidence and procedure, and General police duties: 150 multiple-choice questions in 3 hours, drawn from the current edition of the Blackstone's Police Manuals. The pass mark (cut score) at the most recent published sitting was 55%.

How many of these questions are free?

All 12 sample questions on this page are free to read with full explanations. They come from the same free pool of 30 questions as our free mini mock. The paid toolkit has 347 checked questions for the sergeant paper, a timed 150-question sitting and progress tracking, plus an AI tutor and board assessor on the AI Pro tier.

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